CUET Answer Key 2025 (Soon): Get Analysis/ Memory Based Keys

CUET 2025 Answer Key is releasing soon in June 2025. Paper Analysis is available now with memory based questions. CUET (Common University Entrance Test) is conducted by NTA (National Testing Agency) under the Ministry of Education (MoE).

Exam of CUET 2025 has been started in various shifts? Check below for shift wise paper analysis >>

Paper Analysis Memory Based Questions

CUET UG 2025 Answer Key – Releasing Soon

newicon CUET UG 2025 Memory Based Questions are available now. Official Answer key is releasing soon. Click here to view memory based questions. Click here to subscribe for paper analysis & official answer key alerts.

newicon CUET UG 2025 Paper Analysis is available now for various shifts. Click here to view exam analysis.

Get latest news & updates about CUET 2025 via SMS and e-mail, by entering your details below: 
Please wait...
 

The exam is conducted to provide admission in all Undergraduate courses in all Central Universities. CUET provides a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across the country. CUET exam is conducted separately for UG and PG courses.

CUET 2025

Questions? Type Us Here

This year Examination is being organised in 285 test centres in India. The qualified candidates are offered admission at various central universities such as BHU, Delhi University, JNU, etc. Here in this article, we have provided details about CUET Answer Key 2025.

Get latest news & updates about CUET 2025 via SMS and e-mail, by entering your details below:
Please wait...

CUET 2025 Answer Key

CUET 2025 Answer Key will be made available through online mode. The authority will release provisional official answer key in June 2025. Before that institutional key/ memory based key is uploaded shift wise on the website.

Provisional key will be made available in PDF format. Candidates will be also able to object if they will be not satisfied with the answer. For raising an objection, candidates need to pay a required fee of Rs. 200/- for each question.

The subject experts can check the challenges and then final answer key is displayed on screen. The final answer key will be released in July 2025. CUET 2025 Result will be declared in July 2025 as well. Candidates can check the results through online on the website.

CUET UG 2025 Answer Key Dates

Check the official answer key dates of CUET 2025 below:

EventsDates 2025 (Announced)
CUET UG Exam Date13th May – 3rd June 2025
Re-Exam – 4th June
Answer keyJune 2025
Grievances, if any up toJuly 2025
ResultJuly 2025

How to Download CUET Answer Key 2025

Candidates must check the steps to download the CUET Answer Key 2025 below:

  • Go to the online website (link is given above).
  • On homepage “News and Events” section will be there, select CUET answer key.
  • Enter the login credentials such as Application ID and Date of Birth.
  • Then CUET 2025 Answer Key will be displayed on screen in PDF format.
  • Download the answer key and take the printout for future use.

Memory Based CUET Answer Key 2025

We have provided memory based questions topic wise as per reviews by the students who have attended the CUET exam shifts:

ShiftsMemory Based Answer Key
Day 1 (13th May 2025) – Shift 1General Test Paper

Topic 1 Percentage:

Q: In a class of 40 students, the ratio of boys and girls is 3:2 and the average marks scored by boys is 42 and that by girls is 46.

What is the average marks scored by the whole class?

Topic 2 Ratios:
Q: If the ratio between the first number and the second number is 2:3 and that between the second and third number is 5:3, then the first number is:

Topic 3 Mean, Median & Mode:
Q: If the mean of 3, 4, 9, 2k, 10, 8, 6 and (k+6) is 8, and the mode of 2, 2, 3, 2p, (2p+1), 4, 4, 5, 6 (where p is a natural number) is 4, then the value of (k – 2p) is:

Topic 4 Mensuration:
Q: The volume of a cylinder having base radius 3 cm is 396 cm³.

Find its curved surface area (in cm²).

Topic 5 Reasoning:
Q: What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following alphanumeric series?

A1X, B4P, E25J, J100F, ?
Q: What will be the next number in the series:

3, 6, 10, 17, 26, ?
Q: In the given analogy, choose the word which will replace the question mark:

NEGI : MVTR :: SING : ?

Day 1 (13th May 2025) – Shift 2 & 3CUET Economic Memory Based Questions 

Q. If the value of the Investment Multiplier is 5 and the increase in national income is ₹800 crore, what is the corresponding increase in investment?
Q. Fiscal deficit is defined as
Q. The narrow measure of money supply is known as:
Q. Which of the following statements about monetary policy tools are correct?
Q. The Paradox of Thrift refers to

CUET Mathematics Memory-Based Questions

Linear Programming:
Q: The feasible region is bounded by the inequalities:
3x + y ≥ 90, x + 4y ≥ 100, 2x + y ≤ 180, x, y ≥ 0.
If the objective function is Z = px + qy and Z is maximised at points (6, 18) and (0, 30), then the relationship between p and q is:
Q: A person wants to invest at least ₹20,000 in plan A and ₹30,000 in plan B. The return rates are 9% and 10% respectively. He wants the total investment to be ₹80,000 and investment in A should not exceed investment in B. Which of the following is the correct LPP model (maximise return Z)?
Matrices (Adjoint Property)
Q: For a 3×3 matrix A with |A| = 3, the determinant of adj(A) is:
Q: For a matrix A of order 3×3, which of the following is true?
Q: If A is a square matrix such that adj(adj A) = A, then |A| is:
Determinants (Adjoint & Inverse Properties)
Q: If A is a 2×2 matrix and |A| = 4, then |A⁻¹| is:
Vectors and 3D Geometry:
Q: The angle between vectors a = î + ĵ − 2k̂ and b = 3î − ĵ + 2k̂ is:
Q: Direction cosines of a vector perpendicular to a = î + 2ĵ + 3k̂ and b = 2î − ĵ + k̂ are:
Q:  If vectors u, v, and w satisfy u + v + w = 0, and u and v are unit vectors, while |w| = √3, then the angle between v and w is:

Day 2 (14th May 2025) – Shift 1General Aptitude Test (GAT)

Q1. Find the next term in given series.

2, 5, 10, 17, 26,  ?

(a) 35

(b) 36

(c) 37

(d) 47

Q2. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R’s mother. T is P’s father. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true?

(a) T is Q’s father.

(b) S is P’s mother.

(c) P is S’s son.

(d) Q is T’s son.

Q3. Statements:

(I) All Forces are energies

(II) All energies are powers

(III) No power is heat

Q4. An accused is more powerful than the deceased. Police are less powerful than the court but more powerful than the lawyer. Accused bends his head before police. Who is the most powerful?

(a) Court

(b) Accused

(c) Police 

(d) Lawyer

Q5. Raj is standing in the middle of a square field. He starts walking diagonally to North—East and after reaching midway, he turns right and reaches the far end of the field. Then, he turns right and starts walking. In the midway, he again turns right and starts walking. In halfway, he turns to his left and reaches a new far end. In what direction is Raj now?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) North—West 

(d) South—West

Day 2 (14th May 2025) – Shift 2Mathematics

Q1. The value of 𝜆, so that the vector 𝑎⃗ = 2𝑖̂+ 𝜆𝑗̂+ 𝑘̂ and 𝑏⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂− 2𝑗̂+ 3𝑘̂ are perpendicular to each

other, is:

(a)5/2 

(b) 5/4

(c) 5

  1. d) 7/2

Q2. If B is a non-singular 4 × 4 matrix and A is its adjoint such that |𝐴| = 125, then |𝐵| is

(a) 5

(b) 25

(c) 125

(d) 625

Q3. The vertices of a closed convex polygon representing the feasible region of the LPP with objective function 𝑧 = 5𝑥 + 3𝑦 are (0, 0,) (3, 1), (1, 3) and (0, 2). The maximum value of 𝑧 is

(a) 6

(b) 18

(c) 14

(d) 15

Q4. Corner points of a feasible bounded region are (0, 10), (4, 2), (3, 7) and (10, 6). Maximum value 50 of objective function 𝑧 = 𝑎𝑥 + by occurs at two points (0, 10) and (10, 6). The value of a and b are:

(a) a = 5, b = 2

(b) a = 4, b = 5

(c) a = 2, b = 5

(d) a = 5, b = 4

Q5.If A and B are square matrices of order 3 such that |𝐴| = −1, |𝐵| = 3 then |3AB| is:

(a) – 9

(b) – 81

(c) – 27

(d) 81

Day 3 (15th May 2025) – Various ShiftsGeneral Aptitude Test (GAT)-Logical Reasoning 

Q1. If L + M implies L is the husband of M,

L / M implies L is the sister of M and

L * M implies L is the son of Y, then

How is T related to W from the following statement: T * U + V / W?

(a) Nephew

(b) Uncle

(c) Father

(d) Son

Q2. Ram walked 30m towards the south. Then he turned right and walks 40m, then he moved towards west and curves a distance of 50m and then moved towards north and walked 30m. In which direction and how many meters is he from the starting position?

(a) (East,30)

(b) (South,90)

(c) (West, 90)

(d) (West, 40)

Q3. Find the missing term in the given series

5, 2, 7, 9, 16, 25, ?

(a) 41

(b) 45

(c) 48

(d) 52

Q4. In a row of 40 boys, Satish is 10 places to the right of Rohan and Kewal is 10 places to the left of Vilas. If Vilas was twenty-sixth from the left and there were three boys between Kewal and Satish , what was the position of Rohan in the row?

(a) 10th from the right end

(b) 10th from the left end

(c) 39th from the right end

(d) Data inadequate

Q5. Five students are standing in a circle and all are facing towards the centre of circle. Apurva is on left of

Abhishek. Alok is on the left of Apurva. Abinav is b/w Alok and Ankur. Who is sitting next to Abhinav on his

immediate Right.

(a) Alok

(b) Abhishek

(c) Apurva

(d) Ankur

Day 4 -16th May (Various shifts)Q. If 1st January 2021 was a Friday, what day of the week was 1st January 2022?

Q. A boy moves 3 km North, then turns right and moves 4 km, then turns right again and moves 3 km. How far is he from the starting point?

Q. 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49 — Find the missing number.

Q. 8, 6, 9, 23, 87, ? — Find the missing number.

Q. If 6 + 2 = 16, 7 + 3 = 22, then 8 + 4 = ?

Q: Infrasonic sound is hearable by?

Day 5 – 19th May (Various shifts)Q: Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode:

Q: Find the value of x and y in the following linear equation:

Q: How much will the water level of a cylinder filled with water increase after putting a ball in it?

Q: Find the compound interest if the quarterly rate is 40% and the principal amount is 80,000.

Q: Ratio of height of a triangle when the angle changes from 30 degrees to 60 degrees.

Day 6 – 20th May (Shift-1)GAT

Q: Who is the Chief Head of Experiment on Atomic Energy?

Q: How many times in a day the hands of a clock are at the angle of 90 degree?

Q: Ratio of height of a triangle when the angle changes from 30 degrees to 45 degrees.

Q: Which satellite was launched on 29 January 2025?

Day 7 – 21st May (Shift-1)Mathematics

Q: Maximize Z = 2x + 3y, subject to: x + y ≤ 8, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Which point gives the maximum value?

Q: In a random experiment, the probability of getting a head is 0.5. What is the probability of getting at least one head in three coin tosses?

Q: A feasible region is bounded by 3x + 2y ≤ 150, x + 5y ≥ 115, and x + y ≥ 80. Which region could represent the solution space?

Q: A random variable X has a probability distribution: X = 0, 1, 2; P(X) = k, 2k, 3k. Find the value of E(X).

Q: Let f: R → R be defined by f(x) = |x|. Which of the following is true?

Day 8 – 22nd May (Shift-1)GAT

Q: Which of the following diseases is caused due to protein deficiency?

Q: Arrange the following states in order of their formation:

(A) Mizoram (B) Jharkhand (C) Meghalaya (D) Chhattisgarh

Q: India’s first 3D-printed post office was inaugurated in which city?

Q: A student scores 180 marks in an exam and fails by 10%. The pass mark is 200. What are the maximum marks?

Q: If in a code, “DOOR” is written as “FQQT”, then “LOCK” is written as:

Day 8 – 22nd May (Shift-2)Accountancy

Q: Aman and Rohit are partners sharing profits in 3:2. Interest on capital @ 10% was omitted. Their capitals were ₹60,000 and ₹40,000. Find the adjustment entry.

Q: According to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, which section deals with registration of partnership firms?

Q: Goodwill is considered as:

(A) Tangible Asset (B) Fictitious Asset (C) Current Asset (D) Intangible Asset

Q: The minimum subscription must be received within how many days from the closure of the issue?

Q: The formula for Debt-Equity Ratio is:

Day 9 – 23rd May (Shift-1)GAT

Q: The Brahmaputra River originates from:

Q: In which year was TATA Airlines (now Air India) established?

Q: If a + b = 12 and ab = 27, find the value of a2 + b2.

Q: Which was ISRO’s first satellite launch project?

Q: If the ratio of boys to girls is 3:4 and there are 84 girls, how many boys are there?

Day 10 – 24th May— 
Day 11 – 26th May (Shift-1)GAT

Q: A is the sister of B. B is the son of C. D is C’s father. How is D related to A?

Q: The average of 6, 9, 11, 14, and a number x is 11. What is the value of x?

Q: In which state is the Mollem National Park located?

Q: The total cost of 7 chairs and 3 tables is ₹2400. The total cost of 5 chairs and 3 tables is ₹5400. What is the price of one chair and one table?

Q: If the line 5x−3y=9 passes through a point on the y-axis, what are the coordinates (x,y) of the point?

Day 11 – 26th May (Shift-2)GAT

Q: Who was the first woman in the world to travel to space?

Q: The city of Baghdad is located on the bank of which river?

Q: Who was India’s first test-tube baby?

Q: The 38th Parallel separates which two countries?

Q: What is the scientific name of Pineapple?

Day 12 – 27th May (Shift-1)GAT

Q: A man observes the top of a tower at an angle of elevation of 30°. If he is standing 60 m from the base, what is the height of the tower?

Q: What is the relation among Mean, Median, and Mode?

Q: Choose the correct water image of the letter ‘W’.

Q: Which Indian classical dance form originates from Kerala and is performed by women wearing white and gold costumes?

Day 12 – 27th May (Shift-2)Physics

Q: In the hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength of which series is minimum?

Q: Which element when doped in silicon produces an n-type semiconductor?

Q: What is the electric field at a distance 2 cm from a point charge of +2 μC in air? (Take ε₀ = 8.85 × 10⁻¹² C²/N·m²)

Q: A battery of emf 2 V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected to a 3 Ω resistor. What is the current in the circuit?

Q: When the lower half of a convex lens is covered, what is the effect on the image formed?

Day 13 – 28th May (Shift-1)Mathematics

Q: If A is a 2×2 matrix and |A| = 3, then the value of |2A| is:

Q: A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads?

Q: Let R be a relation on the set of lines such that l₁ R l₂ if l₁ is perpendicular to l₂. Then R is:

Q: The probability of A hitting a target is 2/3, and that of B is 1/2. If both shoot independently, the probability that at least one hits is:

Q: The probability of not getting 53 Mondays in a leap year is:

Day 13 – 28th May (Shift-2)Q: Who is popularly known as the ‘Sparrow Man of India’?

Q: The book Wings of Fire is co-authored by which two individuals?

Q: Who is known as the ‘Bird Man of India’?

Q: Where was the 2024 Men’s Hockey Olympic Qualifier held?

Q: The ‘Open Door Policy’ is associated with which country’s foreign policy?

Day 14- 29th May (Shift-1)Q: Simplify: 36 ÷ 3 × 2 + 12 – 6 = ?

Q: A father’s present age is 9 times the sum of the ages of his two daughters. After 6 years, his age will be 3 times that sum. What is his current age?

Q: An A.P. has first term 5 and last term 65 with 13 terms. What is the common difference?

Q: Study of Lizards is called:

Q: In a class of 40 students, Arjun ranks 12th from the top and 18th from the bottom. How many students are above him?

Day 14- 29th May (Shift-2)Q: Which of the following is the correct chemical formula for Iron(III) oxide?

Q: Hirakud Dam is constructed across which of the following rivers?

Q: Which of the following Constitutional Amendments lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years in India?

Q: Arunachal Pradesh shares its borders with all the following countries except:

Q: Which classical dance form was officially recognised on 15 November 2000?

30th May 2025 (Shift 2)Accountancy

Q: A, B, and C shared profits 3:2:1. C died on August 1, 2023. Profit for the year is ₹1,20,000. How much share of profit is to be credited to C’s capital account (till August)?

Q: Ravi and Mohit are partners sharing profits in the ratio 4:1. They decide to share future profits equally. Calculate the gaining ratio.

Q: A company forfeited 300 shares of ₹10 each, ₹8 called up for non-payment of final call of ₹2. These were reissued at ₹9 as fully paid-up. Amount transferred to capital reserve?

Q: Net profit = ₹80,000, Normal Rate of Return = 10%, Capital Employed = ₹6,50,000. Calculate goodwill using capitalisation method.

Q: Revenue from Operations = ₹9,00,000; Debtors = ₹75,000. Calculate Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio.

GENERAL TEST

Q: Find the compound interest on ₹10,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum.

Q: Who won the Nobel Peace Prize 2024 for contributions to peace and nuclear disarmament from Japan?

Q: A cone has a radius of 7 cm and height of 24 cm. Find its curved surface area. (Use π = 22/7)

Q: If the system of equations ax + by = c and 2ax + 2by = 2c has infinitely many solutions, then the value of a, b and c must satisfy:

Q: Who is popularly known as the “Missile Woman of India”?

Q: Which Indian city is known as the “Manchester of India”?

Q: When was the Marathi language declared a classical language in India?

Q: India shares its longest land boundary with which country?

Q: Match the following regional names of ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture:

Q: The Tyndall effect is associated with which type of mixture?

Q: A can do a work in 12 days, B in 18 days. They work together for 3 days. What part of the work is left?

Q: When was the ‘Make in India’ initiative launched?

Q: Which Mughal Emperor constructed the Ibadat Khana for religious debates?

 

Previous Year Answer Keys

Check below CUET Answer keys (previous year):

Year Answer Keys Link
CUET UG 2024 Final Key OfflineClick Here
CUET UG 2024 Final Key OnlineClick Here
CUET 2023 (Final Key)Click Here
CUET 2023 (Final Key)Click Here
CUET 2023 (Provisional Key)Click Here (Revised)
Click Here
CUET 2022 Final Answer KeyClick Here

Challenging CUET Answer Key 2025

The authority also provides an option to challenge the answer key if candidates are not satisfied with the answers. In order to challenge the answer key, candidates have to pay a non-refundable payment of Rs. 200/- per question. They also have to send the challenge in a given period of time.

The NTA decision is final on the challenges and no further communication is entertained. The experts examine the challenges and final answer key is displayed. The final answer key will be released in July 2025.

CUET Paper Analysis

Here, candidates can check CUET 2025 exam analysis for various Days & Shifts updated according to the review of the candidates. The exams are scheduled from 13th May to 3rd June 2025. 

Days & ShiftsExam Analysis
Day 1Shift 1 (13th May 2025)
Exam conducted from 9am to 10 am. Overall papers of shift 1 were easy to moderate level.GAT Paper – 50 Questions – Average level paper. Questions from quantitative section were easy. Topics from which the questions were asked are – Profit & Loss, Mensuration, Seating Arrangement, Number System, Directions, and Analogy.English Paper – 12th level syllabus was covered. Students found the paper easy and not at all tricky.Economics – Topics were mostly NCERT based focusing on 11th & 12th level questions.Political Science – Questions were mostly asked from the syllabus directly from NCERT.
Shift 2 (13th May 2025)
Exam is scheduled from 12 noon to 1 pm.Students appeared for GAT, Economics and History papers. Paper was moderate in difficulty level. Out of these GAT was considered bit tougher than others. In Economics, there were more questions from Micro than macro. 10 questions were from Case studies.
Shift 3 (13th May 2025)
Exam is scheduled from 3 pm to 4 pm.Paper was considered moderate in difficulty level.The papers are not provided according to the order of datesheet but in any random manner ”- says one of the test taker.According to students, Mathematics was lengthy and required time management. The Physics section was calculative and not easy. NCERT questions & PYQs were noticed.A student says = ”Chemistry & Mathematics questions were from NCERT. GAT was a bit tough.Few candidates appeared for Accounts, Business studies papers. In which students said that theoretical had CASE studies which was more time consuming.
Day 214th May 2025

Shift 1 (9am to 12 noon)

Overall exam of shift 1 was considered MODERATE.
As per students – GAT paper level was fine but History part was difficult. Reasoning paper was easier and Mathematics paper was considered moderate level.

Questions were mostly from NCERT syllabus.

14th May 2025

Shift 2 (3 to 6 pm)

Biology paper was easy as per the students and was scoring. There were questions from NCERT.

Physics paper was reported moderate to difficult by various students. Theory & conceptual was more in the paper.

General Aptitude test

The paper was moderate in difficulty level. Questions were from topics like ratio and proportion, simple interest, profit & loss in quantitative part. Gk part had topics from minimal current affairs and history based. Reasoning had questions from mirror images, calendar puzzles, etc.

Day 315th May 2025

Shift 1 – Accountancy – Various topics from which the questions were asked – Accounting of Partnership, Ratio Analysis, Cash flow statement, Accounting for Share and Debenture Capital, Admission of Partner, etc. Paper was easy to moderate in difficulty level.

Shift 1 – Business Studies – As per the test taker, paper was easy to moderate. Questions were from topics – Planning, Nature and Significance of Management, Controlling, Organising, Consumer Protection, Business Finance, Directing, Marketing, etc.

Overall various students reported Physics as easy to moderate, General Test as moderate, English as easy to moderate in nature.

Shift 2 papers have been concluded for which overall students reported it as easy to moderate.

For Accounts paper, Students were unhappy as the computerised accounting questions had to be in the optional section but they gave it in the compulsory section.

Day 416th May 2025

For Shift 1, check below level of paper in various subjects

Biology: Easy
Chemistry: Easy to Moderate
Mathematics: Easy with a few Moderate-level questions
General Aptitude Test: Easy to Moderate
English: Easy to Moderate
Psychology: Easy and straightforward

Day 519th May 2025

English, GAT, Political Science, History, Sociology, etc.

In English, questions came from topics like – reading comprehension, grammar & structure, vocabulary based questions, etc. The overall difficulty level of paper was moderate in nature.

GAT paper was overall moderate in difficulty level with quant section as difficulty. Mathematics section had 14 questions, local reasoning had 16 questions current affairs/ gk had topics from loympics, books & authors, etc.

Political Science level was moderate in difficulty level. Topics asked in the section were – comprehension & image bsed, planning goverance, important events, etc.

History section was overall moderate with few out of syllabus surprise topics. The topics were regional & cultural history, ancient & medieval sources, travelers accounts, religious & artistic heritage, etc

Day 620th May 2025

Shift 1 English paper was moderate in difficulty level. Compared to GK there was more weightage to current affairs section. Paper was time consuming because of reading comprehension, tough vocabulary questions.

General Test (Shift 2) was moderately difficult, more questions were noticed from history. Paper was lengthy in nature. While shift 2 was easy and could be completed on time.

Day 721st May 2025

Shift 2 of English – was considered moderately difficult. Most of questions were from vocabulary.

General Test – moderate in difficulty level

Mathematics – Shift 1 paper was easy to moderate

Day 822nd May 2025

English (Shift 2) paper was according to students moderately difficult. Similar questions were noticed by students like in previous shifts.

General Test (Shift 1 & 2) – moderate in difficulty level

Mathematics – Shift 1 paper was easy to lengthy – moderate to hard

Day 923rd May 2025

English (Shift 1) paper was considered moderate to easy by students. Because of advanced vocabulary, paper was stated tough.

General Test (shift 1 & 2) – moderately difficult

Mathematics – Shift 1 paper was moderate in level

Day 1024th May 2025

English (Shift 1) paper had similar questions as practised by students in PYQs. If the students were prepared well, then it was easy for them.

General Test – The shift 1 & shift 2 paper were considered moderately difficult by the test takers.

Mathematics – Shift 1 paper was easy to moderately difficult.

Day 1126th May 2025

General Test (Shift 1) paper was delayed due to technical glitches by PAN India server. Even after start of exam, glitches were noticed in the system but the paper was overall easy to moderate in difficulty level.

Shift 2 of General test exam was easy. Logical reasoning part had more weightage and students completed it on time.

Day 1227th May 2025

English (Shift 1) paper was easy to attempt. Some students reported that one of the passage had questions out of context.

General Test (Shift 1) paper was lengthy and moderate in level. Whereas shift 2 was easy to moderate as stated by students.

Mathematics – Shift 1 paper was moderate in difficulty level

Day 1328th May 2025

General Test – The shift 1 paper was moderate in difficulty level. Repeated questions were noticed from past papers. Speed was required to complete the paper.

Mathematics – Shift 1 paper was considered moderate

Day 1429th May 2025

General Test (Shift 1) – The difficulty level was easy to moderate as per the students. There were more questions from logical reasoning whereas few questions from QA and static G.K. 40-42 is a good attempt as per the test takers.

General Test (Shift 2) – The difficulty level was noted to be easy by the students. As appeared in the previous days of General aptitude test paper similar type of questions were seen.

Mathematics – Shift 2 was easy as reviewed by students. Students were able to easily solve it who remembered the formula and had practised well

Day 1530th May 2025

General Test – The shift 1 exam was lengthy and overall moderately difficult. Some 15-16 questions were easy to solve and took 30 seconds. Match the column format questions had more weightage.

Check below Previous Year Exam Analysis:

Days & ShiftsExam Analysis
Exams Through Pen & Paper mode were conducted from 15th to 18th May 2024
Day 1 – Shift 1A (15th May 2024)The paper of Chemistry was successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 10 am to 11 am.

As per the reviews of the students, the paper had more emphasis on the Organic and Inorganic chemistry. Physical Chemistry was much easier than the other sections. On comparison with board exams, the Chemistry paper of CUET was considered difficult one.

However, overall paper was said to be moderate in difficulty level.

Day 1 – Shift 1B (15th May 2024)The paper of Biology has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 12.15 noon to 1 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper was a bit challenging for them. On comparison to the board exams, paper was difficult.

Overall the paper was moderate in difficulty level.

Day 1 – Shift 2A (15th May 2024)The paper of English has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 3 pm noon to 3.45 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper was easy to solve. However, the unseen passage was lengthy and quite tricky to solve.

Overall the difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.

Day 1 – Shift 2B (15th May 2024)The paper of General Test has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 5 pm noon to 6 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper was easy to solve. However, the quantitative section and logical reasoning section was bit tricky to solve. Also, some students found the paper to be time consuming.

Overall the difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.

Day 2 – Shift 1A (16th May 2024)The paper of Economics was conducted in pen and paper mode from 10 am noon to 11 am.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper was difficult and lengthy and could not complete the paper on time. But the paper was easy on comparison to the board paper.

Overall the difficulty level of the paper was moderate.

Day 2 – Shift 1B (16th May 2024)The paper of Hindi has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 12.15 noon to 1 pm.

As per the reviews of the students, some questions in the exams were noticed from the previous year papers. It was easier than the paper of board exams and questions were from NCERT.

Overall the paper was easy to moderate in difficulty level.

Day 2 – Shift 2A (16th May 2024)The paper of Physics has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 3 pm noon to 4 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper was moderate to difficult. There are 50 questions out of which 40 were to be attempted by the students.

Overall the difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.

Day 2 – Shift 2B (16th May 2024)The paper of Mathematics has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 5.15 pm noon to 6.15 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the questions in the paper were tricky to solve. Also, students said that paper was comparable to board exam paper.

Overall the difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderately difficult.

Day 3 – Shift 1A (17th May 2024)The paper of Geography has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 10 am to 10.45 am.

As per the reviews of the students, the questions from the topics – India: People and Economy and Human Geography was moderately difficult. Questions from passage based were easy.

However, overall paper was moderate in difficulty level.

Day 3 – Shift 1B (17th May 2024)The paper of Physical Education has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 12 to 12.45 noon.

As per the reviews of the students, the questions were from the topics as per the syllabus. There were no extra questions outside the syllabus. Also, it was noticed that there were no questions asked from Yoga topic.

Overall paper was said to be moderate in difficulty level.

Day 3 – Shift 2A (17th May 2024)The paper of Business Studies has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 3 pm to 3.45 pm.

As per the reviews of the students, the paper was easy to solve. Students were able to solve the paper on time with the good accuracy.

However, overall paper was easy in difficulty level.

Day 3 – Shift 2B (17th May 2024)The paper of Accountancy has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 5 pm to 6 pm.

As per the reviews of the students, the paper had repeated questions from previous year. The paper level was fine & had direct questions but it was time consuming.

The paper was overall moderate in difficulty level.

Day 4 – Shift 1A (18th May 2024)The paper of History has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 1.30 pm to 2.15 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper had questions mostly from NCERT. Topics were from Ancient as well as modern history.

The paper was overall easy.

Day 4 – Shift 1B (18th May 2024)The paper of Political Science has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 3.30 pm to 4.15 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper had no statement-based questions. Questions were directly from NCERT. Most of the questions were from topic – Indian relations unit.

The paper was overall easy in difficulty level.

Day 4 – Shift 1C (18th May 2024)The paper of Sociology has been successfully conducted in pen and paper mode for all centres (except Delhi) from 5.30 pm to 6.15 pm.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper had questions directly asked from NCERT. Most of the questions were from the topics such as capitalisation, socialisation and secularism.

The paper was overall easy to moderate.

Days & ShiftsExam Analysis
Exams Through CBT mode are scheduled from 21st to 24th May 2024
Day 1 – Shift 1 (21st May 2024)The paper for various Language was successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 9 am to 11.15 am.

As per the reviews of the students, the paper had direct questions majorly from Grammar portion.

However, overall paper was said to be easy in difficulty level.

Day 1 – Shift 2 (21st May 2024)The paper of Fine Arts and Sanskrit was successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 1.15 pm to 2.45 pm.

As per the reviews of the students, the paper had direct and easy questions from the syllabus only. However, students found the paper a bit time consuming.

However, overall paper was said to be moderately easy.

Day 1 – Shift 3 (21st May 2024)The paper for various Fashion Studies & Psychology was successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 4.45 pm to 5.15 pm.

As per the reviews of the students, the paper of Psychology had questions from NCERT section. Fashion Studies questions were according to the syllabus prescribed.

However, overall paper was said to be moderate for Psychology and easy for Fashion Studies.

Day 2 – Shift 1 (22nd May 2024)The paper of Computer Science/ Informative Practices has been successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 9 am noon to 10 am.

According to the reviews of the students, the paper was moderately easy to solve.

Day 2 – Shift 2 (22nd May 2024)The papers of Sanskrit, Entrepreneurship, Home Science, Teaching Aptitude were successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 12 noon to 1.15 pm.

More weightage were given to topics – Entrepreneurial Planning, Enterprise Growth Strategies, and Enterprise Marketing. Teaching aptitude paper was difficult. Compared to previous year, passage papers were tough.

The difficulty level of Entrepreneurship exam was easy to moderate.

Day 2 – Shift 3 (22nd May 2024)The papers of Anthropology & Legal Studies were successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 4.15 pm to 5.45 pm.

There were questions from various topics of Law – situation-based, and the passages were based on Crime/ Contracts and Property Law. The legal studies section had direct questions from NCERT section.

No assertion and legal based questions were there in exam.

Overall the paper was moderate in difficulty level.

Day 3 – Shift 1 (24th May 2024)The papers of Assamese, Gujarati, Malayalam, Tamil, Urdu, Bodo, German, Manipuri, KTPI, Mass Media were successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 9.00 am to 11.15 am.
Day 3 – Shift 2 (24th May 2024)The papers of Dogri (204), Persian (214), Spanish (218), Environmental Studies (307), Performing Arts were successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 1.15 pm to 2.45 pm.
Day 3 – Shift 3 (24th May 2024)The papers of Bengali, Marathi, Italian, Japanese, Engineering Graphics, and Tourism were successfully conducted in CBT mode for all centres from 4.45 pm to 5.15 pm.
Days & ShiftsExam Analysis
Exams Scheduled on 29th May 2024 for the candidates affected in various exam centres
General Test, Chemistry, Bengali & Environmental Studies, Knowledge Tradition Practises of IndiaThe exam was moderate in difficulty level as expected by the students.

Marking Scheme of CUET 2025

Candidates can calculate scores by marking scheme given on exam pattern. The paper consists of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and there are a total of 100 questions.

  • For every correct answer, 5 marks are given to the candidates.
  • For an incorrect answer, 1 mark is deducted.
  • If a question is unanswered no marks are given.

CUET 2025 Result

CUET 2025 Result will be declared in July 2025 through online mode. The result published will be based on the final answer key. Candidates can check their results by entering their roll number. There is no re-evaluation/ re-checking of the result.

No scorecard is dispatched to the candidates they have to download their scorecard from the website. The candidate needs to keep the result safe till the completion of the admission procedure. NTA does not play any role in the preparation of Merit list.

If you have any other query related to CUET UG 2025 Answer Key, then you can ask in comment section below.

6 Comments

    1. Answer key has been released on 25th July 2024. You can get it by clicking the links given in our article.

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Back to top button
×
Please wait...